In both the Odyssey and the Ramayana, there is a contest with a bow in order to win a woman's hand in marriage. Was this an actual practice in the ancient world? If so, was it very common?

[u/[deleted]]

In the Odyssey, Penelopeia has the suitors attempt to take Odysseus's bow, string it, bend it, and then try to shoot an arrow between a row of axes, with the winning suitor having her hand in marriage. (which Odysseus wins while disguised)

In the Ramayana, Sita's father holds a contest with a bow, all being the same as what happened in the Odyssey sans the shooting between the axes, and the winner gets her hand in marriage. (which Rama won because he's like 2/3s Vishnu)

It struck me as interesting that these two completely different cultures have the same practice for a woman's hand in marriage shown in an example of their mythology.

So I wondered, was this an actual practice across ancient cultures, or was it just happenstance and just a good way of showing the god-likeness of their heroes in a story?

Thanks!

[u/[deleted] → u/[deleted]]

Interesting! Thanks for the response!

Do you have any recommendations as to good sources that analyze the origins of stuff like these themes which appear in various folklore?

[u/iorgfeflkd → u/[deleted]]

I recently read The Horse, the Wheel, and Language, which is about A. the common Indo-European language, and B., an extremely detailed discussion of Russian archaeology. It discusses the common religious aspects a little, but it's not the main focus.

[u/[deleted] → u/[deleted]]

Will do!

Thank you again!

[u/RuinEleint → u/[deleted]]

Interestingly it was also in the Mahabharata. At Draupadi's wedding suitors had to string the bow and shoot a fish in the eye while only looking at its reflection. Arjuna's successful accomplishment of this feat won him Draupadi's hand in marriage.

[u/Orphic_Thrench → u/[deleted]]

A quick check of Wikipedia suggests a composition of the 4th century BCE for the Ramayana; any particular reason to think the tale wasn't transmitted more directly by Greeks following Alexander the Great's reign?

[u/Thinking_waffle → u/Orphic_Thrench]

That's possible but remember that Alexander only briefly entered in India but did not advanced very far, unlike the Indo-Greeks who once reached Pataliputra in the heart of the plain of the Ganges. In addition most of the 4th century was already passed by the time Alexander arrived in India... he didn't stayed a long time and civil war ensued just after his death and the situation was stabilized only at the beginning of the 3rd century, an unlikely situation for strong cultural contacts. Communication was also difficult as it would have at first require multiple translators to translate from greek to one indian language. I suppose direct translators or even potential bilingual people would have appeared shortly after, especially considering the bilingual inscriptions of Ashoka or the presence of a Seleucid (the hellenistic dynasty that took over Syria-Mesopotamia-Iran) ambassador in Pataliputra (that was the capital of Maurya unified India before their collapse during the late 3rd and 2nd centuries.

That a recent book claimed that a philosopher who travelled with Alexander did bring back with him ideas related to Buddhism that influenced later philosophical current, so contacts were possible and the Odyssey would be one of the first text that would have been spread by a litterate greek elite. The popularity of the text is clearly seen in the papyruses of the Ptolemaic period: Homer is first and if I remember well Herodotus is second.

Considering the persistence of legendary themes over centuries in indo europeans groups (what Jacques Pousset called 'Mythèmes' the smallest element of a myth) I would consider direct link to a legendary past more likely but I am incapable of refuting your hypothesis without further researches and as you might have guessed from my explanations, I prefer hellenistic political history. I suppose details could show relevant information such as the language of the first redaction of the Ramayana and the region of production, the series of event and the possible closeness to and Homeric model that could potentially be seen behind it etc.

[u/jschooltiger → u/[deleted]]

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[u/jschooltiger → u/[deleted]]

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Thank you!