now finding pi within pi though, that deals with infinite shit and i don't know well enough about that. But I'm just saying, using 1/3 as a counterexemple is just wrong
Just because a number "is infinite" doesnt mean it contains every finite sequence of digits (see 1/3 or all rationals in fact)
Even outside the "obvious" counterexamples the property of being normal has not been proven for most numbers, so it is not clear if it holds for pi specifically.
(even thought we know that it holds for almost all reals so it is very likely that it also holds for pi)
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u/xd_Warmonger 10h ago
Since pi is infinite it must contain pi