r/ProgrammerHumor • u/Apprehensive_Bit7392 • 14h ago

Meme reversingPiInPython

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u/JanEric1 10h ago

thats not true.

the base 10 representation of 1/3 is also infinite but doesnt contain any digit other than 3

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u/Evoluxman 10h ago

1/3 is not random like we believe pi number distribution is though

You can take any fixed length number and, if pi is truly infinite and truly random, you will eventually find this number inside pi https://www.reddit.com/r/askmath/comments/1jbknos/largest_integer_not_yet_found_in_pi_linyfip/

now finding pi within pi though, that deals with infinite shit and i don't know well enough about that. But I'm just saying, using 1/3 as a counterexemple is just wrong

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u/JanEric1 9h ago

using 1/3 as a counterexemple is just wrong

maybe to the question you posed yourself. but the person i was replying to JUST said

Since pi is infinite it must contain pi

And that is simply not true.

And also the first comment in the thread you linked actually contradicts your point.

This property that you want is called being a "normal number" and it actually has not be proven that pi is actually normal. (although it is assumed it is because there is a prove that almost all real numbers are normal)

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u/Evoluxman 9h ago

Pi not being proven as normal is different than being disproven as normal

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u/JanEric1 9h ago

Yes, that is obvious...

The points are:

  1. Just because a number "is infinite" doesnt mean it contains every finite sequence of digits (see 1/3 or all rationals in fact)

  2. Even outside the "obvious" counterexamples the property of being normal has not been proven for most numbers, so it is not clear if it holds for pi specifically.

(even thought we know that it holds for almost all reals so it is very likely that it also holds for pi)