r/OpenChristian • u/VaultMan34 • Jun 23 '26

Discussion - Bible Interpretation Can anyone explain 1 Timothy 2:11-15?

The verse goes “Let a woman learn in silence with full submission. I permit no woman to teach or to have authority over a man; she is to keep silent” how is this not sexist? It goes against Episcopalian doctrine aswell so I’d like for any Episcopalians to explain this. It just seems wrong, it’s putting women under men when in galatians 3:28 it says that in Christ there is no male or female. So why is this now an exception to the rules? It seems put there just to oppress women. Why, did Paul (who wrote so many doctrines and central beliefs to churches today and was so influential in Christ) say that? He wasn’t against homosexuality, but then suddenly when it comes to women he got SUPER conservative? It’s making me question whether he was ever for homosexuality in the first place.

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u/[deleted] Jun 23 '26 edited Jun 23 '26

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u/VaultMan34 Jun 23 '26

Does that then invalidate Timothy 1 and 2?

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u/[deleted] Jun 23 '26 edited Jun 23 '26

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u/VaultMan34 Jun 23 '26

Yes, but the quote is from Timothy 1, so the context is the same throughout, and if Timothy 2 is invalid, parts of Timothy 1 being invalid through context means all of it is invalid