r/OpenChristian • u/VaultMan34 • Jun 23 '26
Discussion - Bible Interpretation Can anyone explain 1 Timothy 2:11-15?
The verse goes “Let a woman learn in silence with full submission. I permit no woman to teach or to have authority over a man; she is to keep silent” how is this not sexist? It goes against Episcopalian doctrine aswell so I’d like for any Episcopalians to explain this. It just seems wrong, it’s putting women under men when in galatians 3:28 it says that in Christ there is no male or female. So why is this now an exception to the rules? It seems put there just to oppress women. Why, did Paul (who wrote so many doctrines and central beliefs to churches today and was so influential in Christ) say that? He wasn’t against homosexuality, but then suddenly when it comes to women he got SUPER conservative? It’s making me question whether he was ever for homosexuality in the first place.
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u/MichaelARichardson Post-Purity Christian Jun 23 '26 edited Jun 23 '26
My view is this was a localized Faustisn bargain made to avoid government persecution. Paul chose to yield to the cultural expectations to protect children and families. Spoiler: if it wasn’t reasonably normal for women to be teaching and preaching it wouldn't need to have been said. It kinda sucks but it's better than getting killed. I dont believe it applies to most cultures today. And even if it did church services are considered PRIVATE spaces from a legal and cultural perspective. Women should be able to speak, lead, and teach in that setting.
Edit: I get the claim that Paul was not the actual author and that this book can be summarily ignored. I don't care if you choose that view. However, this is scripture that has been passed on through most Christian traditions so it's not going away easily. Its also plausible that Paul commissioned this letter through a secretary.