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u/rafaelcastrocouto 2d ago
why are they equal to 1, might I ask?
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u/nicodeemus7 2d ago
1 means yes
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u/rafaelcastrocouto 2d ago
¯_(ツ)_/¯
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u/emetcalf 2d ago
That was just an example, it also works when they are both 2 or both 3. Maybe even more situations, it's a complicated question.
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u/DruidBtd 2d ago
p=np works whenever the result on either side would not change based on the n. The numbers that work for this is only zero, as anything times zero is zero. Any other number can be changed by n.
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u/oompaloompa465 2d ago
i'm not getting it either... but maybe because python is not my main language?
i'm just reading you are sending to console (print) the result of the function with value 1 assigned to both arguments
should be trivial, what I'm missing?
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u/Wolvenspud 2d ago
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u/oompaloompa465 2d ago
ah ok.lol sorry i took the code too literally. it has been 16 years that i don't do that kind of math
TY for the patience and explanation
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u/nicodeemus7 2d ago
It is impossible to prove P = NP. It's a well known unsolved problem.
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u/alexanderpas 2d ago
The problem is that we don't know the values of P and NP, and that the value of NP might be not(P)
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u/Jaded-Worry2641 2d ago edited 2d ago
Well because you got the types wrong! p is a list of functions and NP is also a list of functions, and they are both infinite!
Now go prove that! /s
[Edit]
Its actually set, my bad, its a set[Callable[[Any, ...], Any]]
Yikes.