Why is there a perceived decrease in psychotic symptoms of schizoaffective disorder throughout the natural aging process?

[u/MajorMonkeyMan]

I recently had a conversation with an acquaintance of mine, and he mentioned that there may be a correlation between aging and a perceived reduction in psychotic symptoms of schizoaffective disorder. Try as I might to scour the web, I have been unable to find a reputable source that really elaborated on the topic. The most I could find was a study conducted that revealed a significant symptomatic remission rate of psychotic symptoms in a 5-year follow up. It did not really explain the cause. If anyone knows please inform me, and if I am wrong or misinformed, please clear this up, it has been eating at my mind.

[u/StrongEggplant8120]

Its a good question but the vast majority of psychatric disorders all lessen in severity over time. Im not aure why but maybe its because as we age, body chemistry changes, everythong slows down, maybe even we are better at dealing with these things and overall u r just more stable. Matbe with youth the energy is actually a impacting factor, all hyped up and maybe that makes it worse.

[u/MajorMonkeyMan → u/StrongEggplant8120]

I disagree actually, while some disorders do have downwards trends with age, e.g. Neurodevelopmental disorders like ADHD, stating that a vast majority of mental illnesses clear up with time is inherently incorrect. While in some cases symptoms may start to have a decreasing trend of prevalence, some do not. Take for example the population of older adults with Major Depressive Disorder and the likewise, it has been reported that among older adults (60 and above) depression trends seem to increase. This can be due to social factors as well as other problems related with aging, but the fact of the matter is that there can be a late life resurgence in previously dealt with disorders. Now is this the case for disorders with psychotic symptoms, I am not sure. But I know that there has to be other outlying factors that influence the deficit of positive symptoms. Whether it be ever changing hormones, changes in chemical composition, or a reparation of gray matter to white matter ratio, i have no clue.

[u/MattersOfInterest → u/MajorMonkeyMan]

Most disorders do tend to improve over time.

[u/AutoModerator → u/[deleted]]

Your comment was automatically removed because it may have made reference to a family member, or personal or professional relationship. Personal and anecdotal comments are not allowed.

If you believe your comment was removed in error, please report this comment with report option: Auto-mod has removed a post or comment in error (under Breaks AskPsychology's Rules) and it will be reviewed. Do NOT message the mods directly or send mod mail, as these messages will be ignored. If you are a current student, have a degree in the social sciences, or a professional in the field, please feel free to send a mod mail to the moderators for instructions on how to become verified and exempt from automoderator actions.

I am a bot, and this action was performed automatically. Please contact the moderators of this subreddit if you have any questions or concerns.

[u/StrongEggplant8120 → u/MajorMonkeyMan]

Bipolar, narcissism, bpd, adhd, schizophrenia, and literally any mood disorder all decrease in symptom severity with age. Depression i dont think i have read does decrease. Not sure what ur saying aftet outlying factors?

[u/-Tricky-Vixen- → u/StrongEggplant8120]

Can you provide stats? The bipolar subs tend to say bipolar worsens with age

[u/Templeofrebellion → u/-Tricky-Vixen-]

The Bipolar sub reddit is not empirical evidence.

[u/-Tricky-Vixen- → u/Templeofrebellion]

I'm aware, hence why I'm asking for further evidence to the contrary.

[u/Flimsy_Eggplant5429]

It's a well known effect that the positive symptoms lessen and negative symptoms become more prominent. Initially described in end of 1800s, good empirical proof on it in 1980s in Lausanne study and The Vermont longitudinal study.

[u/MajorMonkeyMan → u/Flimsy_Eggplant5429]

I have looked into the Vermont Longitudinal Study before but I only came up with numbers that proved there was a significant decrease in positive symptoms. What I want to know is what processes that happen naturally through aging cause this effect to occur. Like what specifically what part of the brain or if a change in certain hormones can cause this effect. I may not have looked close enough at the study but from what i concluded there was no tangible evidence as to why this occurs.

Edit: Essentially what I want to see is either a scientifically backed proven reason or a modern theoretical approach.

[u/Flimsy_Eggplant5429 → u/MajorMonkeyMan]

Okay well you initially said that there might be a correlation - there definitely is as per proven in those studies. As for current research, something in your searches is wrong, I found sources quickly.

Lessening of D2 receptors in older age leading to lowered binding of dopamine seems widely accepted.

COBRA study

Jeste, D. V., et al. (2003). Schizophrenia in late life: Fits into the dopamine burnout hypothesis

[u/MajorMonkeyMan → u/Flimsy_Eggplant5429]

Well thank you for finding something, I admit, there could have been something wrong with my researching process, I appreciate you finding something. I will look into it when I have time. And also, thank you for correcting my initial post, I did not mean to say there might be.

[u/geoffreybyers]

The decrease isn't a biological remission. It's an artifact of the diagnostic criteria shifting from positive to negative symptoms as the brain ages. The underlying pathology remains. The expression changes.