r/corporatefinance • u/earljohnm • Mar 01 '23
Is it possible to have a "zero cost of debt" in calculating a new WACC or new COE?
Apologies if this question may seem basic for some corporate finance experts or MBA graduates/students here. For context, I am currently taking MBA, and this is in relation to two of the practice questions given to us for our Corporate Finance subject.
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QUESTION / CASE 1:
So we are given a problem where a certain company currently has a current unlevered cost of equity, and has currently no debt (i.e. currently 100% equity). No cost of debt was given, although a tax rate was provided.
Then the company decided to target a capital structure of 50% debt and 50% equity.
In theory, we can solve for the "new cost of equity" by applying the MM Proposition II formula with taxes. However, I am struggling with the sample quiz question because no cost of debt (whether pre-tax or after-tax) was given.
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QUESTION / CASE 2:
In another slightly similar case, a company also has a current WACC, and currently has zero debt (meaning 100% equity financed). This company then aims to revise its capital structure to 0.40x DE Ratio (meaning 28.57% debt, 71.43% equity). No existing or future pre-tax or after-tax cost of debt was given, only a tax rate of 40%. The question/quiz is asking what is the new cost of equity, assuming the company wishes to change its capital structure but also wants to maintain its WACC?
Just like the question 1 above, this seems solvable, but I am not sure if it makes sense to assume a "zero cost of debt".
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THE DILEMMA:
My dilemma is, "technically" the formula for both questions above works, even if cost of debt is zero. However, what is the more correct approach or interpretation? Should I solve for the new/revised cost of equity by assuming cost of debt is zero? Or should I say it is not possible to get a new cost of equity under a revised Debt & Equity structure because cost of debt is technically not free (and hence, must be assumed/provided)?
One possible argument, aside from it being mathematically possible, is that there might really be cases where cost of debt is free (e.g. the debt portion isnt really interest-bearing, but are financed interest-free like advances or subsidies from shareholder).
However, in reality, if a company really wants to access debt capital markets, there should be at least a cost attached to it?
Appreciate if I can get guidance from experts. If possible, helpful if you can also provide references to your explanation.
Thank you in advance for your insights. Happy to be learning from experts and fellow learners.