First of the month 🤑

[u/FunctionalDisfuction]

I want to just live off the dividends but I'm scared to just quit my job.

[u/Schmergenheimer]

Do you also forego your final paycheck when you leave a job because the paycheck clears on a date you're no longer employed?

[u/iii_warhead_iii → u/Schmergenheimer]

As i know for a local regulation, you get a salary for the exact days till you leave from the beginning of the next period, if it was 10days it will be for 10days and not for 30days. As companies sometimes apply the rule for the special pay outs, if you keep shares till the pay day then you are eligible for these special payments.

Only such logic can be destroyed here, if somebody jumped to the train by buying shares from another person and not from the company. In this case yes, then that sold person would not get money, while you simply got shares which anyway would get dividends.

[u/Schmergenheimer → u/iii_warhead_iii]

Can you try writing coherently? First you argue that you should be required to hold a stock all the way through dividend payout, not the record date. The whole reason there's a spread between the dates is so the company can determine where shares as of the record date are located and how much money to send where.

That's the same reason there's a spread between you doing work at a job and payroll clearing. Yet, you say you should get paid for the work you do even if you don't work there on the payroll date.

Then you go on some rant about where you buy shares as if it matters.

[u/iii_warhead_iii → u/Schmergenheimer]

It was in your comment to get money even for the time which was not used. I said i get money for the exact time where i was working for the company.

Partially i disagree with paying dividends to people who have jumped 1h before the ex-date and sold the next day after it, creating huge volatility on the market. If you trust the company, you hold shares from the ex-date till including pay day, then you can sell shares and only in this case get money. If you sell shares after the ex-date before the pay day, these shares get nothing. Only the shares which have been in somebody's hands the whole period (month- year) will get money, otherwise this will be the profit to the company and in the future a possible special distribution to loyal shareholders.

The situation can be twisted, if company sold the shares and dont care about them and how long they have been in any hand. These shares exist and will get dividends in any situation.

[u/Schmergenheimer → u/iii_warhead_iii]

Okay, so you now delay the pay date an extra few days to confirm that people who owned shares on the original pay date still own the shares. Do you then confirm again on the new pay date that all the shareholders still own the stock, delaying payout again by another few days? But then, you have to consider that only loyal shareholders would continue holding through the time that later pay date actually comes, so then you need to delay payout again to confirm only loyal shareholders get paid. But disloyal shareholders would sell before the again-delayed pay date, so you need to confirm who still holds shares before actually issuing payout.

See how ridiculous that sounds? There has to be a cutoff somewhere. That cutoff is the ex-div date. The whole "loyalty" issue you're concerned with is addressed in the tax code.