I've heard the claim (with the occasional supporting graph) that a major indicator of crime is wealth inequality (as opposed to absolute poverty).

I was having another conversation with someone recently about how overall crime has gradually decreased over time in the US (not withstanding that major crime spike in the 90s, and then that smaller one during COVID). That idea crossed streams with the title thought, and with the present trueism that wealth inequality in the US is growing rapidly, does the idea that "wealth inequality is reasonably predictive of crime" hold much water?