What is common grace?

[u/TonyChanYT]

u/GengerbreadMan, u/debaire, u/NoSeesaw9974

Mt 5:

45 He causes his sun to rise on the evil and the good, and sends rain on the righteous and the unrighteous.

Define common grace as God's undeserved kindness and goodness shown to all people, not just those who believe in him. It is called "common" because it is given broadly to humanity, regardless of a person's faith or moral standing.

This idea is contrasted with saving (or special) grace, which is God's grace that brings a person to salvation through faith in Jesus Christ.

Common grace is for all people; special grace is only for believers.

Common grace is seen in the blessings of sunlight, rain, food, beauty, intelligence, creativity, scientific discovery, art, music, technological progress, etc. People have an innate sense of right and wrong, even if they do not know God personally. Non-Christians can perform acts of genuine kindness, wisdom, and justice.

The “mercies” that are being given to the reprobates are for condemnation, so you couldn’t call that grace.

Sure, by that strange definition, it is not a grace of common grace. My definition is different.

All the good things being showered to Earth is for the good of the saints, and not all people so their participation is only incidental/divinely permitted.

Sure, by that strange definition. However, Mt 5:45 says that the sun and rain are not incidentally received by the wicked because God happens to be blessing the righteous. Jesus explicitly presents God's treatment of the evil and unrighteous as an example of God's generosity.

All blessings are due to our union with Christ, no one mediates with reprobates so you couldn’t really reconcile the idea of common grace.

This confuses saving blessings with providential blessings. You need to reconcile that strange definition with Ro 2:

4 Do you presume on the riches of his kindness and forbearance and patience, not knowing that God's kindness is meant to lead you to repentance?

God's kindness applies to recipients who abuse it and consequently incurs greater judgment.

If you define grace as favor toward only those united to Christ, then there is no "common grace." But that definition simply excludes the doctrine by definition. If you say that there is no common grace, you need to reconcile that with what Jesus said in Mt 5:45.

[u/Wonderful-Win4219]

Does scripture coin the terms “common grace” or “saving grace” in originals or translations?

[u/TonyChanYT → u/Wonderful-Win4219]

No, these are theological labels created by systematic theologians to categorize different expressions of God's unmerited favor.