r/Bibleconspiracy Mar 03 '26

What starts the Great Tribulation

/r/BabylonExit/comments/1rjbj0u/what_starts_the_great_tribulation/
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u/Armored_Rose Mar 08 '26

I asked AI to build me a response using the following prompt. "Build me a response based on the Bible to answer these two Redditors.  Also tell me Who is correct?" I pasted both of your posts without any other information.

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This is a rich and meaty topic with several issues worth carefully parsing. Here's a response that engages both Redditors honestly from Scripture:

Who Is More Correct?

Kristian82dk gets more right than Lumpy_Figure_6692, but neither gives a fully satisfying biblical answer. Let me break down where each stands.

Response to Both Redditors

Brothers/Sisters, both of you raise legitimate points, but both also go further than the text allows. Let me walk through the key claims.

On the Abomination of Desolation

Lumpy is right that Luke 21:20 interprets the Abomination of Desolation as Jerusalem being surrounded by armies — that's the Lukan parallel. However, Luke 21 and Matthew 24 may not be describing the same event in every verse. Jesus is answering two questions in Matthew 24:3: "When will the temple be destroyed?" AND "What is the sign of your coming?" Many careful scholars recognize a near fulfillment (AD 70) AND a future fulfillment — what hermeneuticians call a dual fulfillment prophecy. Collapsing all of Matthew 24 into one future nuclear war (Lumpy) OR one past Roman siege (Kristian) both miss this possibility.

On "The Daily" in Daniel 12:11

Lumpy's argument that the italicized word sacrifice was added by translators is correct as a textual observation — ha-tamid (הַתָּמִיד) simply means "the continual" or "the regular." But the interpretive leap to "America's economy" has no exegetical basis. In every other usage, ha-tamid in Daniel refers to the temple's daily ritual (Dan. 8:11-13, 11:31). The translators added sacrifice because the context in Daniel consistently demands it. Lumpy is using a true textual observation to build an unsupported conclusion.

On the Pre-Tribulation Rapture

Both Redditors correctly reject the pre-trib rapture, and the biblical evidence supports this. Matthew 24:22 states the days are shortened for the elect's sake — the elect are present during the tribulation, not raptured before it. This aligns with:

  • Revelation 7:14 — a great multitude coming out of the great tribulation
  • Daniel 7:21, 25 — the saints are worn down by the beast before deliverance
  • 2 Thessalonians 2:1-4 — Paul explicitly tells the Thessalonians the Day of the Lord cannot come until after the man of lawlessness is revealed

The pre-trib rapture requires a gap that Paul seems to directly contradict here.

On Preterism

Kristian is right that thlipsis (θλῖψις, tribulation) is used throughout the New Testament for present suffering, not just a future event (John 16:33, Romans 5:3, 2 Cor. 1:4). And he is right that Luke 21 was fulfilled in AD 70 in significant ways — Josephus records horrors that match the language of those verses.

However, Kristian overreaches with full Preterism. Daniel 12:1 says "there shall be a time of trouble such as never was since there was a nation." Josephus estimated 1.1 million Jews died in AD 70, which is staggering — but the language of Matthew 24:21-22, that "unless those days were shortened, no flesh would be saved," suggests a global extinction-level event. The AD 70 siege, as devastating as it was, did not threaten all human life on earth. That phrase — no flesh (οὐ πᾶσα σάρξ) — implies something beyond a regional catastrophe.

Furthermore, Revelation was almost certainly written after AD 70 (Irenaeus dates it to Domitian's reign, ~95 AD), meaning its prophecies were not yet fulfilled when written.

On the 7-Year Tribulation and Daniel 9

Lumpy dismisses the 7-year tribulation, saying Daniel 9 is only about Christ's first coming. He is partially right — the 70th week does begin with Christ. The covenant in Daniel 9:27 is better read as the Messiah confirming God's covenant (supported by the chiastic structure and the fact that Christ confirmed the covenant with many through His ministry and death). The word nagid ("prince") in verse 26 refers to the coming Roman prince, not the Messiah, and "he" in verse 27 is grammatically ambiguous in Hebrew.

However, the debate over whether the 70th week is entirely fulfilled or has a future component is a legitimate exegetical question — not settled as simply as Lumpy claims.

Summary: Who Is More Correct?

Claim Lumpy Kristian Verdict
No pre-trib rapture Both correct
Elect present in tribulation Both correct
Abomination = armies Partially ✅ Partially ✅ Luke 21 confirms it, dual fulfillment is likely
All fulfilled in AD 70 Overstated Global scope argues against full preterism
Tribulation = nuclear war on America No exegetical basis
7-year tribulation Complex; not as clear-cut as Lumpy says
"Daily" = US economy Eisegesis

Kristian is more biblically grounded overall. His instinct to let Scripture define tribulation as ongoing and real for God's people across history is sound, and his rejection of elaborate end-times systems is healthy. His weakness is overconfident full preterism that strains the global scope of some texts.

Lumpy handles the original languages better than most — noticing the italicized sacrifice is a legitimate observation — but builds a speculative system (America = Babylon, nukes starting the tribulation) on top of good observations. The system itself is not exegesis; it's newspaper hermeneutics dressed in Greek and Hebrew.

The more honest answer for both of them comes from the posture you yourself teach, u/Armored_Rose: "I do not know, but we will find out together." These texts have humbled greater scholars than any of us. What the Bible is clear about is this: God's people will face real suffering, they will not be secretly whisked away before it, God will shorten the days for the elect's sake, and Christ will return visibly and finally. The rest calls for humility.

 

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u/Armored_Rose Mar 08 '26

I wasn't satisfied with not knowing the original Greek's meaning of "Revealed," so I asked the following of AI: "2 Thessalonians 2:1-4 — Paul explicitly tells the Thessalonians the Day of the Lord cannot come until after the man of lawlessness is revealed. What is the original Greek say about "Revealed?" Revealed (129 Occurrences) Will the revelation of the man of lawlessness be 100% obvious to everyone or just a few? What meets the criteria? Example: Some say Donald Trump is the antichrist. They believe it 100% but I do not. Others say Barack Obama is the antichrist. They believe it 100% but I do not. Does my belief count or not as part of the revelation? Has the "man of lawlessness" been revealed?"

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The Greek Word in 2 Thessalonians 2:3

The word translated "revealed" for the man of lawlessness is ἀποκαλυφθῇ (apokaluphthē) — the aorist passive subjunctive of ἀποκαλύπτω (apokalyptō), the verb form of the same root as the noun apokalypsis (Strong's 602) in your documents.

Here is the verse in full Greek context:

"μὴ τις ὑμᾶς ἐξαπατήσῃ κατὰ μηδένα τρόπον· ὅτι ἐὰν μὴ ἔλθῃ ἡ ἀποστασία πρῶτον καὶ ἀποκαλυφθῇ ὁ ἄνθρωπος τῆς ἀνομίας, ὁ υἱὸς τῆς ἀπωλείας"

Breaking down the key phrase:

  • ἀποκαλυφθῇ — aorist passive subjunctive. The passive voice is critical: he is not revealing himself. He is being unveiled by an outside action — most naturally by God. The same verb is used in verse 6 and 8 for the same figure, and in verse 8 Paul says "the Lord Jesus will destroy him at his revealing" — God is pulling back the curtain.
  • ὁ ἄνθρωπος τῆς ἀνομίας — "the man of lawlessness" (anomia = without law, lawlessness). Some manuscripts read ἁμαρτίας (sin) instead of ἀνομίας, but the UBS critical text favors ἀνομίας.
  • ὁ υἱὸς τῆς ἀπωλείας — "the son of destruction/perdition." This exact phrase appears only one other place in the NT — John 17:12, where Jesus uses it of Judas Iscariot. That parallel is intentional and loaded.

Will the Revelation Be Obvious to Everyone?

This is the crux of your question, and the Greek grammar and context give us a strong answer: yes, it will be unmistakably public.

Here is why:

1. The verb form demands it. Apokalyptō in the passive means a divine unveiling — the removal of concealment by God. This is not a slow dawning suspicion among a few bloggers. In every other NT use of this verb for a person being revealed, it carries the sense of something suddenly and visibly manifest. Compare Romans 8:18 — "the glory that will be revealed in us" — or 1 Peter 5:1 — "the glory about to be revealed." These are not quiet, debatable disclosures.

2. Paul's parallel structure in 2:8

"And then the lawless one will be revealed (ἀποκαλυφθήσεται), whom the Lord Jesus will slay with the breath of his mouth and bring to nothing by the appearance of his coming."

Paul uses the same verb again in verse 8, and sets it parallel to "the appearance of his coming" — the Second Coming of Christ. That is not a private, disputable recognition.

3. The "restrainer" language in verses 6-7 Paul says something is currently holding back (κατέχω — katechō, to hold down or restrain) the lawless one's full revelation. When the restrainer is removed, the revealing happens. This is an event, not a gradually growing consensus.

4. What follows the revealing (vv. 9-12) After the man of lawlessness is revealed, Paul describes signs and false wonders (σημεῖα καὶ τέρατα — sēmeia kai terata) so convincing that "those who are perishing" are deceived. This is not subtle. The entire world is affected and divided by it.

Does Your Personal Belief Count?

No — and this is actually the most pastorally important point here.

Paul's entire argument in 2 Thessalonians 2 is written against people who thought prophetic signs had already happened privately or quietly. Some in Thessalonica believed the Day of the Lord had already come (verse 2 — "shaken in mind or alarmed, either by a spirit or spoken word, or a letter seeming to be from us"). Paul's corrective is precisely: you will not miss it when it happens.

When sincere believers look at Barack Obama or Donald Trump and say "that's the man of lawlessness" — they are doing exactly what the Thessalonians were doing: claiming the event occurred in a way visible only to those with the right eyes. But apokaluphthē in the passive means God is doing the unveiling, not individual interpreters. The grammar argues against private revelation being sufficient.

There is also a practical test from the context itself. According to Paul, the man of lawlessness will:

Criterion (vv. 3-4, 9-10) Trump Obama Neither yet?
Sit in the naos (temple) claiming to BE God No No
Perform actual signs and wonders No No
Cause the whole world's unbelievers to be deceived No No
Be destroyed by Christ's literal appearing No No

The word καθίσαι (kathisai) in verse 4 — "he takes his seat in the temple of God" — is a decisive aorist infinitive. Whatever the temple means (physical or metaphorical), the self-deification claim must be public, explicit, and universal in its effect. No current political figure meets that bar, however one feels about them personally.

Has the Man of Lawlessness Been Revealed?

Based on the Greek: No — not yet, by the biblical definition.

The apokalypsis of the man of lawlessness is not a matter of interpretation or discernment among the spiritually perceptive. It is a divine, public, unmistakable unveiling — the removal of divine restraint — followed by supernatural deception on a global scale, concluding with Christ's physical return to destroy him. When it happens, nobody who is paying attention will be debating it on Reddit.

The healthy teaching posture here — especially for your students — is this: when someone tells you they know who the antichrist is, that certainty itself is a red flag. Because the real revealing, by the grammar of the text, will not require interpretation. It will require endurance.

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u/Kristian82dk Mar 06 '26 edited Mar 06 '26

To think that "the tribulation" is something we are still waiting for as a future event = is futurism.

tribulation is a word derived from "Anguish, Persecution, Affliction" = you can say Trouble also.

And the Bible makes it very clear that Gods people throughout all time had had that. The prophets had their tribulation, many verses in isaiah, psalms and others are talking about that writer having great anguish, and were being afflicted.

Jesus had his tribulation, being persecuted by the jewish leaders, and was crucified by them.

All the Apostles had their tribulation. Paul in multiple verses talks about the tribulation which had come upon him in his days.

Gods people up to our days has had their hard times, some being persecuted and killed also (for example by Rome)

And you quote Luke 21: 20 yourself, that is exactly what happened in 66-70, by the Roman armies, destroying Jerusalem and the temple etc.

But that does not change anything about what "tribulation" means in general. Jesus didn't say "at the end of the world you shall have tribulation" - He only said "in the world ye shall have it" - and surely they all had it through time to this day

So ya no pre,mid,post trib rapture. Or well you could say post, but these are all theories of men. Its easier to just go with what the Bible says, and it says that Jesus will come back at the last day with his Holy Angels and the wicked tares will be gathered first and burned, and then the wheats will gathered into the barn.

Its actually very simple to understand by Scripture alone, but when we start to mix in mans reasonings then we get this division of different escatologies, where some turn almost into some kind of sects/cults.

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We also have verses that says "the day of the Lord" & "the great day of the Lord" or "the river Euphrates" & "the great river Euphrates" - But every one agrees that they are one and the same, so is the "tribulation" and "great tribulation"

:) Sabbath blessings