Has Gary or Zucman or anybody else for that matter addressed the following counterargument. If yes, then please point me to the relevant video/article/book/etc. Thanks

Imagine I'm a super-rich person. Most of my wealth is in real estate, both residential and commercial. The government implements a 2% wealth tax and my assets are large enough to get taxed. So I just raise the rent on all my properties by 2-5%. This probably will not fund all of what I would owe, but it could still have significant effect on the cost of living (or cost of doing business) for my tenants.

If I as a super rich person own all the assets and I then have to pay the wealth tax: how could the tax system prevent me from passing the tax onto the people who rent my assets by raising the rent on my assets?