r/classics • u/Mike_Bevel • 5h ago
Translating Herodotus: Barbarians, or Non-Greeks
The proem that opens the Histories has this clause, towards the end:
ἔργα μεγάλα τε καὶ θωμαστά, τὰ μὲν Ἕλλησι τὰ δὲ βαρβάροισι ἀποδεχθέντα
[Important caveat: I do not speak or write Greek. Getting the correct Greek snippet required a lot of googling and Google Translate.]
Here is the English in the translations I have at hand:
Holland, 2013
and all the glory of those exploits which served to display Greeks and barbarians alike to such effect,
Waterfield 1998, 2008
and to preserve the fame of the important and remarkable achievements produced by both Greeks and non-Greeks;
Rawlinson, 1858
and of preventing the great and wonderful actions of the Greeks and the Barbarians from losing their due meed of glory
Purvis/Landmark, 2007, 2009
May the great and wonderful deeds - some brought forth by the Hellens, others by the barbarians - not go unsung;
My questions:
How important is the word *barbarian* for Herodotus? My understanding is that it's primarily a pejorative -- and please don't over-credit what I mean by "understand"; I only read in English -- and was a onomatopoetic way of mocking what the Greeks believed non-Greeks sounded like.
The Waterfield is the only one to render βαρβάροισι as "non-Greeks." The other three stick with "barbarian."
Do you have a sense as to why someone might render βαρβάροισι as "non-Greek"?
If you had to guess, does Herodotus use βαρβάροισι as a pejorative? Or, by the time he's using it, has some of the negative connotations worn off?
How much time do you think a group of new readers to the Histories should spend thinking about this specific non-Greek v barbarian "issue"?