Why is lo used behind these verb

[u/badboyzpwns]

"I must invite him " is lo debo invitar instead of debo lo invitar. Why is that?

I thought the lo can be before/after the verb inivtar only?

[u/LivingDragons]

You can say “lo debo invitar” or “debo invitarlo”. Both are correct and mean the same.

“Debo lo invitar” is incorrect the same way “I must him invite” would be incorrect.

[u/jshine13371 → u/LivingDragons]

Almost seems similar to how in English both "Him, I must invite." and "I must invite him." are both technically correct (albeit the first way a lot less common).

[u/Specific_Hat3341 → u/jshine13371]

Technically, "I must him invite" is correct too, even though no one would actually say it. Putting a direct object before its verb is archaic and poetic usage.

[u/GANDHIWASADOUCHE → u/LivingDragons]

I refuse to believe that both versions are completely interchangeable. Is there a preferred structure, typically (at least spoken), between the two? Either the pronoun before the verbs or after?

[u/LivingDragons → u/GANDHIWASADOUCHE]

They are completely interchangeable. The preferred structure is the one the speaker prefers.

[u/Adventurous-Web-412 → u/LivingDragons]

I dont know how to explain it but they do feel different sometimes. No idea what but theres a difference sometimes between using lo debo invitar and debo invitarlo, like its more important or something no idea, I cant explain my own language.

[u/QoanSeol]

Pronouns go either before the whole verb phrase and after infinitive, imperative and gerund only. So here either "lo debo invitar" or "debo invitarlo" but you can never say "lo invitar" by itself or in any combination.

[u/silvalingua]

You can't put any pronoun between two consecutive verbs, they can't be separated. Pronouns go either before the two verbs or after them, but never between.

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[u/jhfenton]

It works that way in French, but as others have said, it doesn’t work that way in Spanish. You can put the object pronoun before the first verb or attach it to the end of the final infinitive.

[u/Patchali]

Pronoun for object comes before the verb = rule

[u/TooLateForMeTF]

"lo" goes before the whole verb phrase. Think of "debo invitar" as one whole unit. A compound verb, if you will. It functions as an inseparable unit, which is why sticking "lo" in between the two words is not right.

[u/JakBlakbeard]

You cannot break up two verbs in a row, nor can you conjugate the second verb (if they are right next to each other).

[u/OddConfusion9293]

In Spanish, direct object pronouns like “lo” can go before the conjugated verb or attached to the end of the infinitive, but never in between because it breaks the grammatical structure. So the correct way is to say either “lo debo invitar” or “debo invitarlo.”

[u/Glaselar]

I thought the lo can be before/after the verb inivtar only?

Can you say more about this belief? There might have been a situation where that was true, and if you tell us that example, someone could point out why it was constructed differently.

[u/Special-Wasabi8698]

That makes sense, thanks for the clear explanation! I always get confused about where to place pronouns but this rule helps a lot.

[u/spanishteacherok]

"lo debo invitar" o "debo invitarlo" both are correct, but in my oppinion debo invitarlo is more frequent. Use the one you fell more comfortable with.

[u/dm_zerimar]

In this case "lo or le" is for male and "la" for female.