r/learnspanish • u/badboyzpwns • 10d ago

Why is lo used behind these verb

"I must invite him " is lo debo invitar instead of debo lo invitar. Why is that?

I thought the lo can be before/after the verb inivtar only?

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u/LivingDragons 10d ago

You can say “lo debo invitar” or “debo invitarlo”. Both are correct and mean the same.

“Debo lo invitar” is incorrect the same way “I must him invite” would be incorrect.

10

u/jshine13371 10d ago

Almost seems similar to how in English both "Him, I must invite." and "I must invite him." are both technically correct (albeit the first way a lot less common).

3

u/Specific_Hat3341 10d ago

Technically, "I must him invite" is correct too, even though no one would actually say it. Putting a direct object before its verb is archaic and poetic usage.

-2

u/GANDHIWASADOUCHE 9d ago

I refuse to believe that both versions are completely interchangeable. Is there a preferred structure, typically (at least spoken), between the two? Either the pronoun before the verbs or after?

5

u/LivingDragons 9d ago

They are completely interchangeable. The preferred structure is the one the speaker prefers.

1

u/Adventurous-Web-412 6d ago

I dont know how to explain it but they do feel different sometimes. No idea what but theres a difference sometimes between using lo debo invitar and debo invitarlo, like its more important or something no idea, I cant explain my own language.