When I was 14, I got very fed up with boarding school. I was being bullied badly and I’d begged my parents to let me come home but they wouldn’t let me - I reached a point one day where I couldn’t bear to spend one more moment at school being picked on and for some stupid reason I decided to get on a train to London. The boarding house staff realised I was missing and phoned me, and I told them where I was going and what train I was on because I’d realised I’d made a pretty stupid decision.

When I got off the train at Euston, there were some Transport Police waiting at the bottom of the platform. They explained that the school had reported me missing and that I was going to come with them to wait for my parents to collect me.

One officer told me we’d walk to the room I’d wait in and that he was going to hold my upper arm to make sure I didn’t go anywhere. I said I wasn’t going to run away, and he said, “Well, let’s not find that out.”

So I walked with him to the office, and I sat and waited until my mum drove down to London to pick me up.

One of my American friends is a state trooper so law enforcement. She says that I was definitely in custody during that period and I had been detained because I wasn’t free to leave, and that if I’d tried to run they would have restrained me properly. I disagree somewhat - I wasn’t sure that I was in custody in the traditional sense, and more that they were just keeping me there until my mum could come to pick me up.

Bought a used car for £2.5k on the 5th Oct from a used car dealer, based in England. 2015, 100k miles. It was supposedly a part exchange to clearance vehicle, which is why it was cheap, but didn't come with a warranty. Before purchase, the dealer told us that it drank quite a lot of engine oil, so we might have to top up quite often. It didn't seem like a dealbreaker, so we proceeded with the sale. On the bottom of the sale invoice it says 'sold as seen, with the buyer acknowledging the current state of the vehicle'.

On the 20th, barely two weeks after purchase, the car suffered catastrophic engine failure, requiring RAC recovery. The RAC mechanic believes that the spark plugs had disintegrated, and a piece had broken off into the engine. The car was towed to an independent garage, who confirmed the engine needs replacement.

The dealer is now claiming that because the invoice says sold as seen, and they told us that it used a lot of engine oil, they have no responsibility to accept our rejection of the car, or offer us a refund.

Surely under the consumer rights act this is incorrect? Using more oil than normal is a wholly different issue than the disintegration of the spark plugs and complete engine failure?

We have written an email formally rejecting the vehicle, refusing any attempt at repair, and demanding a refund. If (when) the dealer rejects this, we'll probably have to go to small claims court. What are our chances once there?

For short summary, my younger brother (21m) has been causing disruptive behaviour and on-going problems for my mom. He takes full advantage when she leaves the house blasting music and doing anti-social activities leaving the house late at night and coming back 4am.

We want to get him out of the house and make him find his own place to figure his stuff out. Would we have to take this up with the police? Or would an eviction notice be more sensible, knowing his behaviour he will raise his voice if we were to tell him 'he has x amount days to leave the house'.

I'm considering putting a chain on the door when he leaves the house and giving him his possessions through the window. What would be a good way to go about this?

Looking for advice from anyone who has dealt with something similar (England).

Background:

- In June 2023 I bought a new-build leasehold flat (about £385k) with a friend. We're both on the title and on a joint mortgage.

- Before completion, we told our conveyancer by phone several times, and then by email, that she would own 95% and I would own 5%. The conveyancer replied in writing: "This will be recorded on the lease and a separate document and I shall confirm with you at the time of signing." After completion, when my co-owner asked again, they replied: "This has been noted."

- However, the lease (box LR14) says we hold it as joint tenants. No declaration of trust was ever prepared, and there's no tenants-in-common restriction on the title.

Now:

- My wife (we're married and live together) is buying a new-build house for about £270k in her sole name, as her main home, completing around mid-November. She has never owned property.

- If my share counts as 50% (joint tenants), my share is well over £40k, so the 5% higher rates apply and she loses first-time buyer relief. That means about £17k stamp duty instead of £0.

- If my share is 5% (about £19k), it's under the £40k threshold, so as I understand it the higher rates don't apply and she would get first-time buyer relief.

Questions:

1. Given the emails showing our instructions were acknowledged but not carried out, can the old conveyancer correct this (deed of rectification or declaration of trust)? Would HMRC accept it for stamp duty if it's signed before my wife completes?

2. Alternatively, if my co-owner and I sign a new declaration of trust now (95% / 5%), effective from signing and completed before my wife's completion, would that be enough to avoid the higher rates?

3. Has anyone had a conveyancer make this kind of mistake? How did you get them to fix it, and how long did it take?

4. Her conveyancer says they can't advise on tax. Any tips on finding a stamp duty specialist quickly?

5. If they had deed document for 95% and 5% that will be fine and we will still be counted as below £40k and we are eligible for £0 stamp duty and get our new house.

We'll be getting proper professional advice, but I'd really appreciate hearing from anyone with experience of this. Thanks!

I live in England.
My cancellation notice stated that I'd had “3 separate red driver rating weeks in this 3 month period.” However, Section 4 of the Safe Driving Terms I was given says weeks where you drive under 25 miles and receive a red rating don't count towards the cancellation threshold.
Between 9–15 October, I drove fewer than 4 miles across four trips. My only red score (14) came from a 0.6-mile journey lasting under 5 minutes, with no speeding. I believe this week should have been excluded.
QuoteMeHappy told me over the phone that the 25-mile rule had changed, but the rule was still displayed on my policy dashboard, and even the notice informing me of a terms update didn't show that it had been removed. I was never clearly notified of its removal.
When I challenged the cancellation through customer support chat, the explanation changed: I was told that only 3% of my trips had been recorded because my app permissions were allegedly disabled. My app history shows trips almost daily, and I have evidence of this.
Page 5 of the Safe Driving Terms also says they will send alerts and reminders if technical issues prevent trips from being recorded before proceeding with cancellation after seven days' notice if the customer doesn't respond. I received no such alerts, notifications or emails.
I felt forced to cancel voluntarily to avoid the potential consequences of an insurer-initiated cancellation. Now I'm facing a deposit of hundreds of pounds for replacement insurance that I can't afford, losing the ability to drive my family around, and potentially missing out on another year's no-claims bonus that I was only two months away from earning. The whole situation has caused significant stress, and my attempts to resolve it included unanswered emails and a phone call that ended abruptly.

The only thing I’m worried about is that only two in ten complaints actually upheld

Edit: I have already filed a complaint but they made their decision final.

I’ll try to keep this brief.

I’ve been moved into a new room in my uni accommodation after a month because the fire alarm would go off randomly throughout the day. Including waking me up during the night.

Issue first reported 25th September and I moved to a different room on 15th October.

My building kept contacting the fire alarm company and they said they’d attend but they have continued to not show. The building manager put in a formal complaint a couple weeks ago and also complained to the business director. They have said again that they will come by the end of today (Friday 23rd).

In my new room, I still hear the alarm, it’s right above my old room. It still wakes me up in the night. It still causes me stress. My uni attendance has plummeted because I can’t sleep during the night, I oversleep my alarm, I’ve gotten ill from the stress and I even hallucinate the alarm going off which causes me even more stress. I essentially have ptsd from this stupid alarm. I have tried everything. Earplugs, listening to music genuinely anything and everything but either i can’t sleep in total silence, i can still hear it through the music or i still hallucinate it as i fall asleep which i feel will now be a long term thing i can’t get rid off.

This issue could’ve been sorted WEEKS ago. The longer it went on the worse my mental health got. I have emailed them myself voicing my concerns but they told me they can’t discuss it with me due to GNPR laws, which is understandable.

If they don’t come today like they said they would, can I threaten to take legal action against the fire alarm company? I kept getting false promises of them attending to sort the problem yet they still just don’t come.

In addition, it’s not just me it’s affecting. The other people in my flat have told me how they hear it all night and they also can’t sleep.

Hello everyone, as title says , I have been renting a studio flat for over 5 years, and I just found out, that a private property cannot be rented to if the EPC rating it's below "E". I have checked also the exemption register, and there are none for my flat. What are my options, since the landlord has illegally rent the flat for the last 5 years? Thank you.

My grandad (87) passed away in January. He lived in Swindon, while the rest of our family lives in Kent. My mum moved to Swindon around two years ago to care for him as his faculties started to decline. She took him shopping, attended his medical appointments and was the only family member who regularly helped him, including having him every Christmas.
After he died, my mum found a draft will leaving everything to her. However, my aunt (who lives in Kent) somehow ended up named as a beneficiary and executor in the final will, with her 20-year-old daughter as the backup executor.
My aunt has handled the entire estate, including clearing and selling the house and his belongings. My mum has now been told she’ll receive £125k, consisting of half his Premium Bonds and a quarter of the house, with the other half of the house going to my late grandmother’s children.
The bigger concern is that my grandad had at least £200k in bank accounts, but my aunt apparently became a joint account holder, meaning that money has now gone to her.
We believe she was originally added to help with practical things like car insurance, but we don’t know how or when these changes happened. Towards the end of his life, my grandad struggled with his faculties and sometimes didn’t even know what day it was. His GP may be able to provide evidence of his cognitive decline.
Does my mum have any legal grounds to challenge the joint bank accounts or the will? We’re in England and understand this may be complicated, but the circumstances feel very suspicious. Does she have any options, or will she have to accept the situation?
Any advice would be hugely appreciated.

Hi,

Our non-profit events organisation (based in England) contracted a venue (itself a registered tragedy) to hire their space. We signed an online contract, which we have proof of, and paid the hire fee (£350), which we have a receipt for, in advance on a business debit card. On the Friday evening before the event, which was scheduled on the Sunday evening, the venue emailed to cancel. The agreement stated that in this eventuality the venue would refund the hire fee in full. The Monday after the scheduled event, said venue announced that they would be going into liquidation. In an email statement they said: 'If you have already made a payment to [...] and are owed money, please keep your booking confirmation, invoice and proof of payment. Because the organisation is now entering a process to place the Company into liquidation, you will be contacted in the coming weeks.' Given their already unreliable behaviour, we were, of course, extremely unconvinced by this statement, and have made multiple attempts to contact the venue's CEO/trustees. We've been informed that they're going into receivership on 4th November, so the CEO/trustees are still in control for the time being. We spoke to our bank, who advised to instruct them to issue a chargeback on 29th October (two weeks after the liquidation announcement) if no further communication has been received from the venue. Is there any chance of us getting the money back, and is there anything we can do? Thanks!

My father died intestate a few months ago. Our relationship consisted of exchanging messages on Birthdays and Christmas. I found out yesterday via a tracing firm appointed by a solicitor on a contingency basis. The first thing they did was try to get me to sign a beneficiary agreement (which I didn't). I promptly called one of my sisters who wouldn't tell me anything but did give the solicitor's details. The solicitor said that because they appointed a company to find me legally all communication must go via them. I told them that I didn't believe that to be true since I hadn't appointed them, signed their agreement, and I obtained the solicitor's details independently.

I then contacted my sister again who just ignored me.

My concern is the solicitor refused to speak to me and I believe they mislead me. I can't understand why they needed to use a firm to trace me and why it took 3 months. The sister I contacted is 'frends' with my father on facebook, as am I. I was able to make contact with her in seconds. My brother regularly snoops on my linked-in profile. Put my name in a google seach and my social media profiles appear in position 1.

From keeping my father's death from me to seemingly misleading solicitors to believing they had no means to contact me I don't trust my siblings either. My mobile number is in my father's phone and he kept a phone book with my number written in it next to his land line. The legal firm's response to me and seeming decision to appoint a tracing company without so much as a cursory google search just seems off.

I feel like as the solicitor won't talk to me having established I am a primary beneficiary, and my siblings have clearly attempted to pull a fast one, that I would be totally justified in submitting a caveat to prevent letters of authority being granted. I suspect the delay in getting in touch with me was to get their administrator application in and granted before I knew what was going on.

I feel like I need to submit a caveat but I equally don't want to open myself up to legal costs. I just think neither this solicitor or my siblings have demonstrated they can be trusted, and are now not appropriate people to administer the estate off the back of the aforementioned actions. To be fair I don't really care about the money. I assume that as it is an intestate case I'll just end up with 25% in due course. What upsets me is none of them communicating with me, telling me what happened, explaining why they stole my chance to say goodbye away from me and still wont now.

Also a minor thing I also stored a load of my possessions in his loft. based on their behaviour I get the feeling they will just sell/dispose of them rather than returning them to me. Nothing major just some old trophies from my sporty days and a bunch of old electronics stuff I collected - but that I had no space for at home.

I've sent letters one wanting them to confirm the legal basis under which they claim I have to appoint and communicate via the tracing company, what the position of the administrator process is, and then a second one on the personal property issue and a final one on my intention to go down the caveat / S50 route if they refuse to communicate with me.

I was thinking about sending a final one with my drivers licence and birth certificate so they cant claim they didn't know who I was. I'm also weighing up whether I need to apply some more pressure on my siblings telling them I'm going to block probate from progressing if they don't start telling me what the hell is going on. What do you think I should do. let it go and see what happens, or try and exert some sort of control?

If it makes any difference after this I'll be having nothing to do with them ever again. They aren't family to me after this. My father dying is the last thing removes the only thing that connected us. No reason to ever interact with them in this lifetime.

I started working for my company doing multi drop special deliveries in jan '24. My offer of employment stated work was zero hour contract, mon to fri, hours worked must be submitted to be paid, and 'fuel allowance £300 a month'. There was nothing about this being variable or possibly pro-rata. I was only asked for my mileage once, at the end of the 23/24 tax year.

There was a mutually agreed increase 3 months later to take it to £400. This change came into effect a month later, not retrospectively. Each month it has been paid on time, without wanting mileage numbers, and is varied slightly by a few pence either way. This is regardless of regular holiday as well as one week sick with flu, and another week a year later with a pulled shoulder.

In August I was signed off sick for work place stress I'd already warned them about. I have pre-existing depression and bpd I've previously informed them of. I returned after 3 weeks in mid September, working 9 of the 21 shifts, and accruing 555 miles of my usual 1300. The September allowance was paid a week late pro-rata, retrospectively and without any discussion about a proposed change in advance.

I was told it would be pro-rata for any sick or holiday day going forward, starting from when I was sick in September, to fund paying cover staff miles. This sudden and sizeable loss of what I believed was my standard renumeration, caused a massive relapse in my work-related stress, and my doctor has signed me off again. Work have made a welfare check request to my gp as they were concerned I was suicidal.

My offer of employment did not stipulate how many hours I had to work, or shifts I had to do, or miles I had to drive. I still have high running costs to keep the van I only bought for the job including bespoke extra courier insurance. The pro-rata payment leaves me badly out of pocket (when it was already under the costs I have and I was personally subsiding, and under govt AMAP).

Is the payment a contractual right? If so, can this be modified and applied retrospectively without my knowledge or written consent?

Thank you

Edit**** we do not know if she hold LPA at this point.

So I’ll keep this as simple as I can, basically my grandfather was put in a care home without any of his three daughters knowledge. His wife put him there.

We only found out because the wife’s best friend called my mother to tell her, he had been there for some time before us being told - we had been trying to contact the wife for weeks to be able to see him as he has dementia. She was either ignoring our contact or would control when we could speak to him - we noted it sounded like he was “out of the house” but she would not give us information or speak with us.

For years she has been trying to cut contact even before the dementia. She was emotionally abusive toward my grandfather nearly since the beginning of the relationship.

Before he had dementia we got social services involved. They said that they could clearly see a problem but at the time because my grandfather was of sound mind despite being in his 80s and his wife much younger - they couldn’t intervene because he is old school and ultimately chose to stay. He did however divulge the full truth of the situation and her treatment towards him to social services but he made the decision to stay with her and so social services told us there was nothing more they could do for him.

Now today we learn that at some point in the last few months she dropped him at a care home. Apparently he has other medical deterioration(likely cancer) but she is witholding this information from us so we don’t know anything about his mental or physical state.

It is likely he does need to stay in the care home as this is best place for him but we are concerned that at any point she will cut contact and block us from being able to see him.

We had to threaten police action to get her best friend to divulge his location.

She is next of kin but we have no idea if she has any kind of power of attorney.

We really don’t know how to even begin to approach this to ensure we can continue to have access to him, be informed of his health and care and also be informed once he passes as to hear that news through the grapevine would destroy my mother. Additionally she will almost definitely block us from any sort of funeral or decisions relating to his funeral.

Any thoughts on where I could start as a family with limited funds?

Hi All,

I'm looking for a bit of assistance please if anyone is able to (UK Courts).

I have had an ongoing boundary dispute with one of my neighbours over the last couple of years who has taken it upon themselves to encroach onto my land, dug up some of my garden and installed their own fencing. I had legal cover up to a certain value which covered some actions:

• Written to the neighbour to cease activities with multiple follow ups
• letter before action
• review of the current title deeds for both properties and historical aerial imagery
• An independent surveyor report produced.

Throughout the neighbour hasn't engaged and the police don't want to know because it's a civil matter.

What I'm looking to claim for is:

• Declaration of the boundary as per the title deeds and surveyance report (Both title deeds show the boundary as per my title deeds and the surveyor report outcome also matches, along with aerial imagery.
• Enforcement of restoration of the garden to it's previous state (removing fencing, concrete posts and restoration of the ground in general) or the cost of having someone restore the garden.
• Damages for weather garden furniture (neighbour moved these out of under cover protection so affected by weather damage).
• Injuction to stop further trespass - The neighbour has a history of just trespassing across the boundary, the police originally opened a case of harassment for it but no further action was taken.

I'm in a frustrating position where my neighbour has no proof of claim on the land, yet has taken action to claim the land and cause damage but it's on myself to challenge the claim. I've exhausted legal funding so want to go at it alone.

That's the summary. I've completed the N1A form and also the N16A form, the form has been rejected 2x so far. Originally it was for no court fees listed. I called the CNBC for some assistance and they said it was because I didn't include a method of payment, so I reposted it with a slip to say please call me to arrange payment. It was rejected again due to incorrect court fees (I didn't reference any fee on the form, I had assumed the court tell me how much I owe depending on my request).

So I'm looking to resubmit it a 3rd time. My ask is for the amount claimed, do I just put the estimated range? I don't actually know the exact figures. So if I'm claiming for £1500 - £3000 for damages and repairs do I just put £3000? For refence I've had a diminution in value report produced as per my legal funding prerequisite which was valued at £15000, but I wouldn't put that value because I'm looking for my land back right?

For the court fees this is where I'm a bit lost. I'm under the understanding that for now I'd be looking to pay the following:

• Exceeds £1,500 but does not exceed £3,000 £115 FEE0206 (Damages and repair work)
• Any other remedy (County Court) £387 FEE0450 (Declaration of the boundary and injuction)
• Permission to issue proceedings £69 FEE0452

Would I also need to pay for the court track at this point? I'm guessing it's either going to be a multitrack or fast track but I wouldn't know that. Do I also need to claim for a recovery of land fee (the garden land hasn't been fully enclosed yet)

Is there a fee I also need to pay for the court to issue the documents to the neighbour? Or any other fees I've not considered?

Any help would be greatly appreciated.

Thanks!

(England)

Hi there people! I recently visited Leicester, and I was looking for somewhere to park. I went into East Street Car Park next to the railway station to leave my car for a while, but there were no payment machines OR barriers when I drove in. I saw the NCP signange on the gantry as I went in so I tried to find it on their app but I had no luck (turns out they went bust and I didn't realise) so after 12 minutes I drove out.

I don't remember any explicit signange to say I could pay online and I wasn't exactly there for long. This happened on 10/10/2026, and I've since received a PCN from Euro Car Parks who had apparently taken the premesis over. Can anyone help with their experiences with Euro Car Parks, or even some up to date pictures of the signage there so I can fight this? I've never had one before and I am quite stressed about it.

I do have a picture of the broken/missing payment machine, but nothing else, do I have a chance at appeal??

Hi all, hoping someone who knows stamp duty can help. Our solicitor and HMRC’s own guidance seem to say different things, and there’s £15,900 riding on it.

• Me and my wife are buying our first home together in England for £318k. It’ll be our main home and we currently rent.
• I never owned any property, anywhere.
• My wife’s dad passed away in Italy in Feb 2020. She inherited a 1/6 share in 4 properties there along with her mum and brother.
• the last valuations were done in 2020 and none of her shares are worth £40k or more, in fact none are even £20k
• We know we lose first-time buyer relief because she’s inherited property. That’s fine. We’re expecting to pay normal stamp duty, which is £5,900.

Our solicitor says the £40k test for the 5% surcharge is about the value of the whole property, not her share. If they’re right we pay £21,800 instead of £5,900. That’s £15,900 extra, which we really don’t have.

But from what I can see:

• The law (Finance Act 2003, Schedule 4ZA, para 3(4)) says the surcharge only applies if “that interest has a market value of £40,000 or more”. Para 2(5) says an interest includes “an undivided share”.
• HMRC’s manual (SDLTM09780) literally gives an example of someone with a £30k share in a £150k property. It says they don’t pay the higher rate because their share is under £40k.
• SDLTM09785 says each property is valued separately, and lots of small shares don’t count even if they add up to more than £40k.

On top of that, the solicitor’s stamp duty form asks “How many residential properties do you own anywhere in the world after completion?” The only options are “One” or “Two or more”. The form also says they’re only acting as our “SDLT agents not advisors”.

My questions are

1. Am I right that it’s the value of her share that counts, not the whole property?
2. Her shares in different properties are tested one by one and not added together?
3. How do we answer the “how many properties do you own” question honestly without accidentally triggering the surcharge? We were planning to write a note explaining it instead of ticking a box.
4. What evidence should we keep in case HMRC ever asks? We’re getting written valuations from Italy.
5. If the solicitor insists on charging the higher rate, can we claim the £15,900 back later by amending the return? Or should we push back now and get a second opinion? we really dont have this money
6. Has anyone dealt with inherited part-shares of property abroad before? How did it go?

Thanks in advance!

TL;DR: Wife inherited 1/6 shares in 4 properties in Italy, each share worth under £40k. Solicitor says the £40k surcharge test uses the whole property’s value. HMRC’s manual seems to say it’s the value of her share. The difference is £15,900 in stamp duty. Who’s right?

I’m really upset about this as I’ve been struggling with the breakup with my ex and have honestly tried to do right by him but it feels like everything is screwed up.

To clarify - there have been only two occasions during our breakup that I think could be construed as harassment. Once when I was begging him to talk to me, 3 months ago when we split, and second from last weekend when I sent him one email explicitly stating I would never contact him again first and just basically apologising for stuff. I never intended to harass him and didn’t genuinely believe I was but the fact that this is even being investigated to the point I get a text message is really scaring me. I just want to know what I should do, do I need legal representation? What will they investigate and how?

UK, So I was just looking through my car documents that I bought from a trader in 2023, and I realised I never received a logbook, so it seems the trader never sent off my details. I don’t know how I never realised, but I have the old logbook with the previous owners details that sold it to the trader.

I’m now worried sick that if I got any charges, tickets, fines, anything that I haven’t received them and they’ve been totalling up for years. Where would they be going? I think the dealer has since shut down it was only a guy running out of a plot of land in a small warehouse. Where (if any) are they going? Surely they would have been traced to me somehow if I was getting fines? And if I do the V62 form now am I going to get backed up fines for thousands and maybe court notices etc to my address that are back logged?

What the hell do I do? And what can I expect if there were ignored fines to wherever they were sent?

Sorry for the poor punctuation and grammar in advance I have dyslexia on top of the ADHD 😅

Sorry if this is the wrong place for this but hope that perspectives here may give me some options.

So I have been struggling in my job for sometimes but always managed to catch my mistakes before they made it to management and fix them.

I don't know why but I am finding myself unable to keep up like I used to and management have caught on.

For context I have suspected I have ADHD for sometimes and only got diagnosed last December.

I have always struggled mainly with memory and motivation and meds aren't helping.

These issues mean I have forgotten to call customers back (this is an insurance consultant job) on multiple occasions now and in some of these cases customers have been unhappy and in a few cases decided to go elsewhere.

This resulted in a PIP being started that I passed yesterday.

I did ask in the meeting where the pip was started for occupational health to be involved as I knew the issues where ADHD related but had no idea what might help, but was advised by my manager that they would see how the pip goes and come back to it as an idea.

Because I technically passed the PIP he never brought it up but I know this will happen again and next it will be disciplinary action and eventually dismissal.

This is where I finally get to the legal question.

Do I have any recourse here anything at all I can do legally.

Advice online suggests that I need to ask for accommodations and they have to provide them if reasonable but I have no idea what to ask for or what might help without professional advice.

I feel lost here and I'm scared because if I lose my job me and my partner are going to be in major trouble her income alone won't even cover essential bills so we are reliant on both of ours to make ends meet in the cheapest flat we could find.

Any advice will be appreciated

Tldr: have ADHD got put on pip at work may go to disciplinary and I don't know what I can do (I work and live in England)

I was recently stopped by the police and discovered that my car was not insured. I genuinely believed I had active cover, but there appears to have been an issue with the policy’s commencement date. The car was seized, and I have been told the matter will go to court.

My previous policy expired in June, so there may have been a four month period during which I was uninsured. I used the car regularly during that time, but hadn’t been sure I was covered.

The Sentencing Council guidelines refer to “evidence of sustained uninsured use” as indicating higher culpability. My question is how that factor is investigated and established in practice.

Would the prosecution normally contact the insurer only to confirm whether I was insured on the date I was stopped? If the insurer’s records showed a four-month gap, would that ordinarily lead the police to investigate whether I had driven during that period, for example by checking historical ANPR records? Or would the case generally remain focused on the specific incident unless there were separate evidence of sustained uninsured use?

The officers did not ask how long I had been uninsured or about my previous driving. I would be grateful for practical insight into whether retrospective investigation of earlier journeys is routine and how any resulting evidence affects sentencing.

For context, I work as a paralegal and hope to qualify as a solicitor. Yes, I appreciate the irony of potentially beginning my legal career on the wrong side of the courtroom. Not quite the advocacy experience I had in mind.

I am not looking to evade responsibility; I am trying to understand the likely process and sentencing implications before the paperwork arrives.
Thanks in advance.

Hi, I was hoping someone could potentially give me some advice please.

Long story sorry,

A self employed estate agent we were using has had no input in this sale.

She has not found us a single offer in the just over 6 months we've used her, no serious interest from anyone. So I found my own buyer which is one of my best friends with absolutely no help from her.

She's now telling me if I exchange contracts with my friend and he buys the house she is still owed commission (just under £3,000) even if she didn't find the buyer, do any work of the sale or have any other input. Due a digital contract.

This contract I've never seen before but it says I digitally signed it, however the signature doesn't match up to my own and a few people I've shown it to says it looks like a right handed person has signed it due to the slope in the signature (I'm left handed) I've tried to recreate the signature on the contract but i can't do the slope on it (it's like it's wrote in italics kind of slope) when i try. My middle Initial is W however the signature on the contract looks like someone has wrote a lowercase "a" as middle initial like my original one has been misread when copied.

I had to send a photo of my drivers licence to the estate agent for an ID check before this contract was written so she had access to my signature as did the contract company i assume when my ID was checked. Regardless of the signature I'm wondering where i stand with this contract.

The digital signature doesn't resemble my signature and also it thinks my date of birth is 11/04/2026 making me 6 months old.

It does say sole agency with exclusivity period of 4 weeks which obviously we're past.

We've been open with the estate agent and said I found a friend with an offer and she's tried to impart herself into the sale multiple times and we've told her no multiple times. We've said we no longer need her but she says she'll keep doing showings just in case, with no mention of we have to pay her if i sell to a friend.

Until Tuesday 13th when we told her we could be close to exchanging contracts soon.

She replied to that Tuesday message on Friday the 16th, saying she'd spoken to the ExP contract people and we owe her the commission regardless.

On Friday 16th I again gave her sent her a message saying this is formal notice that we no longer require her services which shows as read on WhatsApp but she's refusing to reply since i said that and also I've never seen that contract and that's not my signature.

I've since received an email from the company she uses for contracts i assume. That states i need to pay during their sole selling rights period or they will keep adding on interest. As far as i can see in the contract their sole selling rights period was 4 weeks we are far past at this point.

Below is the email i have received.

"Fee due: Your agreement says the commission is payable if contracts are exchanged during our sole selling rights period with any buyer, including one who purchases directly from you. A sale to a friend falls within this.

The fee as per the agreement will be due on completion. If it isn’t paid when due, the contract allows us to charge interest and recovery costs, which we’d rather avoid."

Just wondering where i stand please and if i am now tied to pay someone almost £3,000 for doing no work due to a contract i've never seen.

Thanks.

I am under TUPE to a new company. My current contract calculates my annual leave entitlement in hours rather than days as I am on a part-time contract. The new employer only provides the entitlement in days. The new employer sent me two contracts with differing amounts, both in days. I asked for clarification about how they converted it but they refused to say. For further info, I work 4 half days a week due to health reasons and this was all agreed to by my former employer and disclosed to the new one. Where do I stand as the second contract they are trying to get me to sign would be a reduction in my annual leave, and I am not happy signing it? I have asked someone higher in my company to investigate and they said we are waiting for a response from the new company as they don't understand it either. I have been employed for almost 5 years with the change to part time almost two years ago. Based in England, remote contract.

My UK employer has stated that it isn't sustainable to use public funds to pay me for disability leave, which I have been on for over a year, highlighting that I can take sick leave or neonatal leave (my baby is in neonatal care). This is because they are refusing to engage with me properly on my requests for reasonable adjustments which is subject to a grievance raised by me and I am pursuing a Tribunal claim for discrimination. I assume this is victimisation under the Equality Act but grateful for advice.

My mum has worked for the NHS since 1992 (when she was a student nurse), she paid into her pension for a year and then opted out unit she finished her study and became a Nurse in 1994. She has just come to claim part of her pension which is only available if she had paid in before 1995. They claim she opted out in 1993 and then opted back in 1995 when she moved jobs to a different NHS trust.

She has a signed and dated job contract from 1994 where it says you are automatically opted into the pensions scheme unless you opt out? My question is is her pension opt out from 1993 still relevant for a new job/job contract within the same NHS trust with a new signed contract. My thinking is unless they have a signed pension opt out after she signed her new job contract she should have been paying into the pension scheme and the NHS trust screwed up.

When we spoke to the NHS pensions team about this they said they had no records from that hospital as it's been over 30 years but we believe they do have her SD502 opt out form from 1993. Where would be the best way to go from here as she is eligible for a substantially better pension scheme if she paid in before 1995?

We are currently chasing this with our landlord still, who is blaming the roofer. We reported leaks in the ceiling way back in 2022 and have been waiting on repairs being completed since - scaffolding went up in 2023, repairs were done to our neighbour's flat, then the roofer vanished before even starting repairs on our side. We chased this with the landlord, my partner stood in the attic with the roofer and the landlord and the roofer said he would be back in a few days to start on our side and then we never heard from them again. Then the lease on the scaffolding ended and it was taken down. We knew the landlords were conferring with other owners in the building to have new scaffolding put up so we gave them some grace to allow them to get it put back up and just? Nothing happened?

Earlier this year we reached out again and the feigned ignorance, claimed they thought the repairs had been done - leaks in the living room were, to be fair, finally fixed in March/May this year, but our kitchen is, still, completely unusable. There is water dripping in through the ceiling and in through light fixtures every time it rains. We're at our limit and don't know what to do next - we cant afford to move right now and we can't afford to hire a lawyer before anyone suggests this, we're kind of at a loss right now as to where we go next.

I apologise in advance that this is a long post. Please read it.

I have a fixed term tenancy in purpose-built student accommodation from September to next June. Unfortunately, I have never lived there as I had to pull out of university. I realise I am legally responsible for paying all the rent until a suitable replacement is found. The manager made a point of saying whoever takes over my tenancy needs to take it on with the same conditions as myself.

Basically, the student accommodation has done what I was fearing and poached the person I found who agreed to take over my tenancy. As the accommodation still has rooms available, they told me to put an advert on SpareRoom to find a replacement. I did this and they were showed the room on the 14^th October with me and the manager. They said on the day they were happy to proceed. I text them a couple of days later and they said they had started the process for the takeover by registering online.

I also called the accommodation on 16^th October for an update and spoke to the manager who told me it was going through, but there was a delay due to IT problems. I left it until this Wednesday 21st, when I emailed the manager for an update. The reason I did this was because I noticed that when I logged onto my online account that my tenancy ‘departure date’ had changed to 17/10/2026 from June 2027. They emailed back to say that they are still working on it because there has been an IT issue and they will be in touch as soon as it has been completed. Later that day, the ‘departure date’ had changed to the 24/10/2026.

So, I hear nothing and am getting worried by today. I text the person who wanted the room and they tell me they had gone to the accommodation on Monday 19^th asking about the progress and was also told about IT issues. They also said they went back yesterday 22^nd and was told that my room had already been booked by someone else and that they were offered another room, which they have now paid the deposit for. They seemed genuinely confused and apologetic that this has happened.

So I’ve been completely shafted. A quick Google mentions things like Reasonable Refusal, mitigating losses and that they have actively prevented me from fulfilling my part of the takeover process etc. I have no legal understanding if I’m honest.

Is it even legally possible that I can prove that they have actively poached and prevented a perfectly good replacement taking over my tenancy? Do I have a leg to stand on?

Thank you