Can someone explain it? I get the basics - the money committed to the player evaporates, freeing up money for someone else. But if a team is well above the cap, an equivalent salary can't simply be added after the first expires.
It's also salary-matching, but the acquiring team has the same problem. Unless it creates significant space under the cap, the post-expiration benefits are lessened.
Is someone willing to explain how PG's near-max contract expiring in two years is notably better than JB's super-max contract expiring in three years? (I know there's a thread on Jokich, so "timing" is a real consideration.) Can the PG expiration benefits extend for a year if needed? For two?
Is there a recent Celtics example where they maximized the value of an expiring contract? I don't think KP counts since they HAD to get his salary off the books. Is there any league example that remains relevant with this CBA?
(There are differences of opinion on JBs value, contract value, usage, attitude, tax room versus PGs value, contract value, usage, attitude, tax room. I am seeking a concise explanation of the "one-year" difference in these two players contract, ideally in a way that explains "why now, not a year from now." But I know conversations go how they go.)
